Q1. Snow-blindness in the Antarctic region is due to:
(1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
(2) Inflammation of the cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(4) Damage to the retina caused by infra-red rays
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Snow-blindness is caused by inflammation of the cornea due to UV-B radiation.
Q2. Identify a molecule which does not exist:
(1) He₂
(2) Li₂
(3) C₂
(4) O₂
Answer: (1)
Explanation: He₂ does not exist because its bond order is zero.
Q3. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)₂ in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)₂ is 2 × 10⁻¹⁵:
(1) 2 × 10⁻¹³ M
(2) 2 × 10⁻⁸ M
(3) 1 × 10⁻¹³ M
(4) 1 × 10⁸ M
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The solubility of Ni(OH)₂ is 2 × 10⁻¹³ M.
Q4. Identify the correct statements from the following:
(a) CO₂(g) is used as a refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C₆₀ contains twelve six-carbon rings and twenty five-carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is a colorless and odorless gas.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Statements (c) and (d) are correct.
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction:
Sucrose + H₂O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose
Q5. If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 × 10¹³ at 300 K, the value of ΔrG° at the same temperature will be:
(1) -8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹ × 300 K × ln(2 × 10¹³)
(2) 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹ × 300 K × ln(2 × 10¹³)
(3) 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹ × 300 K × ln(3 × 10¹³)
(4) -8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹ × 300 K × ln(4 × 10¹³)
Answer: (1)
Q6. Identify the incorrect match:
(a) Unnilunium - Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium - Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium - Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium - Darmstadtium
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Unununnium is Roentgenium, not Darmstadtium.
Q7. An element has a body-centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is:
(1) √3 × 288 pm / 4
(2) √2 × 288 pm / 4
(3) 4 × 288 pm / √3
(4) 4 × 288 pm / √2
Answer: (1)
Explanation: For BCC, r = √3a / 4.
Q8. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
(1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
Answer: (4)
Explanation: These molecules have symmetrical structures resulting in zero dipole moment.
Q9. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at the anode will be:
(1) Hydrogen gas
(2) Oxygen gas
(3) H₂S gas
(4) SO₂ gas
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Oxygen gas is produced at the anode.
Q10. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
(1) Isopropyl alcohol
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The reaction produces tertiary butyl alcohol.
Q11. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has -O-O- linkage?
(1) H₂SO₃, sulphurous acid
(2) H₂SO₄, sulphuric acid
(3) H₂S₂O₈, peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H₂S₂O₇, pyrosulphuric acid
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Peroxodisulphuric acid has an -O-O- linkage.
Q12. Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?
(1) NH₂
(2) N(CH₃)₂
(3) NHCH₃
(4) NH₂
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Primary amines give the carbylamine test.
Q13. The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Cr²⁺ ion is:
(1) 3.87 BM
(2) 4.90 BM
(3) 5.92 BM
(4) 2.84 BM
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The spin-only magnetic moment is 4.90 BM.
Q14. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:
(1) q = 0, ΔT = 0, and w = 0
(2) q = 0, ΔT < 0, and w > 0
(3) q < 0, ΔT = 0, and w = 0
(4) q > 0, ΔT > 0, and w > 0
Answer: (1)
Explanation: For free expansion, q = 0, ΔT = 0, and w = 0.
Q15. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off to two decimal places):
(1) 0.20 K
(2) 0.80 K
(3) 0.40 K
(4) 0.60 K
Answer: (3)
Explanation: ΔTf = Kf × m = 0.40 K.
Q16. The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl₂ (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol⁻¹) is:
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer: (1)
Explanation: 1 Faraday is required to produce 20 g of calcium.
Q17. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as:
(1) Aldol condensation
(2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) Cross Aldol condensation
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The reaction is a cross aldol condensation.
Q18. Paper chromatography is an example of:
(1) Adsorption chromatography
(2) Partition chromatography
(3) Thin layer chromatography
(4) Column chromatography
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.
Q19. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to a change in:
(1) Activation energy
(2) Heat of reaction
(3) Threshold energy
(4) Collision frequency
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Heat of reaction is an extensive property and changes with concentration.
Q20. A mixture of N₂ and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N₂ and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N₂ is:
[Use atomic masses (in g mol⁻¹): N = 14, Ar = 40]
(1) 9 bar
(2) 12 bar
(3) 15 bar
(4) 18 bar
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The partial pressure of N₂ is 15 bar.
Q21. Identify the correct statement from the following:
(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
(2) Blister copper has a blistered appearance due to the evolution of CO₂.
(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by the Van Arkel method.
(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
Q22. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of:
(1) -I effect of -CH₃ groups
(2) +R effect of -CH₃ groups
(3) -R effect of -CH₃ groups
(4) Hyperconjugation
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Hyperconjugation stabilizes the tertiary butyl carbocation.
Q23. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(2) Sodium stearate
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a cationic detergent.
Q24. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The reaction is a β-elimination, follows Zaitsev's rule, and is a dehydrohalogenation reaction.
Q25. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is:
(1) Ethanol + Acetone
(2) Benzene + Toluene
(3) Acetone + Chloroform
(4) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Ethanol and acetone show positive deviation from Raoult's law.
Q26. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?
(1) SCN⁻ < F⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < CN⁻
(2) SCN⁻ < F⁻ < CN⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻
(3) F⁻ < SCN⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < CN⁻
(4) CN⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < SCN⁻ < F⁻
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The correct order is SCN⁻ < F⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < CN⁻.
Q27. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
(1) Serine
(2) Alanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Lysine
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid.
Q28. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl₂, MgCl₂, and NaCl. Which compound(s) crystallize(s)?
(1) Both MgCl₂ and CaCl₂
(2) Only NaCl
(3) Only MgCl₂
(4) NaCl, MgCl₂, and CaCl₂
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Only NaCl crystallizes out.
Q29. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) polybutadiene
(4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
Answer: (1)
Explanation: cis-1,4-polyisoprene is natural rubber.
Q30. Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(2) It reduces the oxygen-carrying ability of blood.
(3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
(4) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Carboxyhaemoglobin is more stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
Q31. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
(1) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
(2) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
(3) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
(4) α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Sucrose hydrolyzes to α-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose.
Q32. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals:
(1) Iron
(2) Copper
(3) Calcium
(4) Potassium
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Potassium is responsible for these functions.
Q33. Which one of the following has the maximum number of atoms?
(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(3) 1 g of O₂(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
Answer: (4)
Explanation: 1 g of Li has the maximum number of atoms.
Q34. The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in ¹⁷⁵Lu, respectively, are:
(1) 71, 104, and 71
(2) 104, 71, and 71
(3) 71, 71, and 104
(4) 175, 104, and 71
Answer: (1)
Explanation: ¹⁷⁵Lu has 71 protons, 104 neutrons, and 71 electrons.
Q35. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?
CH₄(g) + 4Cl₂(g) → CCl₄(l) + 4HCl(g)
(1) +4 to +4
(2) 0 to +4
(3) -4 to +4
(4) 0 to -4
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The oxidation number of carbon changes from -4 to +4.
Q36. Identify the incorrect statement:
(1) Cr²⁺ (d⁴) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe²⁺ (d⁶) in water.
(2) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
(3) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C, or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO₄²⁻ and Cr₂O₇²⁻ are not the same.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The oxidation state of chromium in both CrO₄²⁻ and Cr₂O₇²⁻ is +6.
Q37. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl₂(g), the correct option is:
(1) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
(2) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
(3) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
(4) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The reaction is exothermic (ΔrH < 0) and results in a decrease in entropy (ΔrS < 0).
Q38. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
(1) Viscosity
(2) Solubility
(3) Stability of the colloidal particles
(4) Size of the colloidal particles
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Zeta potential is useful in determining the stability of colloidal particles.
Q39. Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu²⁺ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
(1) CuSO₄
(2) [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
(3) Cu(OH)₂
(4) CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The deep blue solution is [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺.
Q40. Match the following and identify the correct option:
(a) CO(g) + H₂(g)
(b) Temporary hardness of water
(c) B₂H₆
(d) H₂O₂
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
CO(g) + H₂(g) is synthesis gas.
Temporary hardness of water is due to bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.
B₂H₆ is an electron-deficient hydride.
H₂O₂ has a non-planar structure.
Q41. Match the following:
Oxide:
(a) CO
(b) BaO
(c) Al₂O₃
(d) Cl₂O₇
Nature:
(i) Basic
(ii) Neutral
(iii) Acidic
(iv) Amphoteric
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
CO is a neutral oxide.
BaO is a basic oxide.
Al₂O₃ is an amphoteric oxide.
Cl₂O₇ is an acidic oxide.
Q42. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 4.606 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:
(1) 100 s
(2) 200 s
(3) 500 s
(4) 1000 s
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The time required is 500 seconds.
Q43. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the products. Its structure is:
(1) CH₂=CH-CH₃
(2) CH₃-CH₂-CH₃
(3) CH₂=CH₂
(4) CH₃-CH=CH₂
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The alkene is CH₂=CH₂.
Q44. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(1) n-Hexane
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(3) n-Heptane
(4) n-Butane
Answer: (3)
Explanation: n-Heptane cannot be made in good yield by the Wurtz reaction.
Q45. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives:
(1) Phenol + CH₃I
(2) Iodobenzene + CH₃OH
(3) Phenol + C₂H₅I
(4) Iodobenzene + C₂H₅OH
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Anisole cleaves to give phenol and CH₃I.
Q46. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?
(1) Hydrogen atom
(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He⁺)
(3) Deuteron atom
(4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne⁺)
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Bohr model is not valid for Ne⁺.
Q47. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is:
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
(1) c : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : c
(4) 1 : c²
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The contributions are equal (1:1).
Q48. The Brewster's angle (i_b) for an interface should be:
(1) 0° < i_b < 30°
(2) 30° < i_b < 45°
(3) 45° < i_b < 90°
(4) i_b = 90°
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Brewster's angle is between 45° and 90°.
Q49. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is:
(R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
(1) 0.5 kg/m³
(2) 0.2 kg/m³
(3) 0.1 kg/m³
(4) 0.02 kg/m³
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The density is 0.2 kg/m³.
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