Q1. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
(1) Sex ratio
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Species interaction
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Species interaction is not an attribute of a population. It is a population interaction.
Q2. The process of growth is maximum during.
(1) Log phase
(2) Lag phase
(3) Senescence
(4) Dormancy
Answer: (1)
Explanation: In exponential growth, the initial growth is slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly thereafter at an exponential rate in the log or exponential phase.
Q3. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
(1) Fibrous roots
(2) Primary roots
(3) Prop roots
(4) Lateral roots
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The roots that originate from the base of the stem are fibrous roots.
Q4. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option:
Column-1:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Filariasis
(d) Malaria
Column-II:
(i) Wuchereria
(ii) Plasmodium
(iii) Salmonella
(iv) Haemophilus
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi.
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species.
Q5. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(1) ZIFT and IUT
(2) GIFT and ZIFT
(3) ICSI and ZIFT
(4) GIFT and ICSI
Answer: (1)
Explanation: ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer) are embryo transfer methods.
Q6. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(2) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(3) When I⁴ and I⁵ are present together, they express the same type of sugar.
(4) Allele ‘I’ does not produce any sugar.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The alleles I⁴ and I⁵ produce slightly different forms of sugar, not the same type.
Q7. Choose the correct pair from the following:
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
(3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Ligases join the two DNA molecules.
Q8. Select the correct match:
(1) Haemophilia – Y linked
(2) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
(3) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
(4) Thalassemia – X linked
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive trait caused by a mutation in the gene present on chromosome 11.
Q9. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry
(c) Book lungs
(d) Bioluminescence
Column-II:
(i) Asterias
(ii) Scorpion
(iii) Ctenoplana
(iv) Locusta
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Locusta is a gregarious pest.
Echinoderms have radial symmetry in adults and bilateral symmetry in larvae.
Scorpions respire through book lungs.
Bioluminescence is well-marked in ctenophores.
Q10. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:
(1) Trophozoites
(2) Sporozoites
(3) Female gametocytes
(4) Male gametocytes
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure:
(1) Chitin, cholesterol
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
(3) Cellulose, lecithin
(4) Inulin, insulin
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Inulin has a glycosidic bond, and insulin has peptide bonds.
Q12. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Pollen grains inside the anther and embryo sac inside the ovule consist of two generations.
Q13. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:
(1) Ammonia alone
(2) Nitrate alone
(3) Ammonia and oxygen
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Nitrogenase catalyzes the formation of ammonia and hydrogen.
Q14. Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase:
(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(2) Reorganization of all cell components takes place.
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
(4) Nuclear Division takes place.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: During the G₁ phase, the cell is metabolically active and grows but does not replicate its DNA.
Q15. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
(1) Lining of intestine
(2) Ducts of salivary gland
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) Eustachian tube
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Cuboidal epithelium with a brush border of microvilli is found in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron.
Q16. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
(1) They are not bound by any membrane
(2) These are involved in ingestion of food particles
(3) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(4) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Inclusion bodies are not involved in the ingestion of food particles.
Q17. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Polysomes
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Golgi bodies are the site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Q18. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
(1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Ethidium bromide is used to stain DNA, and the fragments are visualized under UV radiation.
Q19. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen:
(1) Binding of oxygen with hemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O₂
(2) Partial pressure of CO₂ can interfere with O₂ binding with hemoglobin
(3) Higher H⁺ concentration in alveoli favors the formation of oxyhemoglobin
(4) Low pCO₂ in alveoli favors the formation of oxyhemoglobin
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Higher H⁺ concentration favors the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin, not its formation.
Q20. Ray florets have:
(1) Inferior ovary
(2) Superior ovary
(3) Hypogynous ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Ray florets have an inferior ovary.
Q21. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(2) 5' - GGAACC - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - GAATTC - 5'
(4) 5' - CGATCC - 3' 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
Answer: (1)
Explanation: EcoRI recognizes the palindromic sequence 5' - GAATTC - 3'.
Q22. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes:
(1) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Sticky ends can be joined by DNA ligases, but this is not a wrong statement.
Q23. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(1) Primary sludge
(2) Floating debris
(3) Effluents of primary treatment
(4) Activated sludge
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters for further treatment.
Q24. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration:
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
Answer: (1)
Explanation: During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, increasing the thoracic volume.
Q25. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:
(1) The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in the ventral part of the abdomen.
(2) The cockroach does not have a nervous system.
(3) The head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
(4) The head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The head holds a small proportion of the nervous system, and the rest is situated along the ventral part of the body.
Q26. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata, notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata, and Cephalochordata.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: In Vertebrata, the notochord is present during the embryonic period only, and the central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
Q27. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology:
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Thermus aquaticus
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella typhimurium
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry proteins.
Thermus aquaticus is a source of thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase).
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning vector.
The first recombinant DNA molecule was constructed using a plasmid from Salmonella typhimurium.
Q28. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants:
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Boron
(d) Manganese
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Iron is essential for chlorophyll biosynthesis.
Zinc is needed for auxin synthesis.
Boron has a role in pollen germination.
Manganese is involved in the splitting of water during photosynthesis.
Q29. Identify the incorrect statement:
(1) Heartwood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
(2) Sapwood is involved in the conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in color.
(4) Due to the deposition of tannins, resins, oils, etc., heartwood is dark in color.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Sapwood is the outermost secondary xylem, not the innermost.
Q30. Match the following:
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity
(b) Possess peptide bonds
(c) Cell wall material in fungi
(d) Secondary metabolite
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
Collagen possesses peptide bonds.
Chitin is present in the cell wall of fungi.
Ricin is a secondary metabolite.
Q31. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
(1) Prior to ovulation
(2) At the time of copulation
(3) After zygote formation
(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed after the entry of sperm.
Q32. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:
(1) 1.5 million
(2) 20 million
(3) 50 million
(4) 7 million
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Robert May estimated global species diversity at about 7 million.
Q33. The first phase of translation is:
(1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(2) Recognition of DNA molecule
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(4) Recognition of an anti-codon
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The first phase of translation involves the aminoacylation of tRNA.
Q34. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits the highest species diversity?
(1) Western Ghats of India
(2) Madagascar
(3) Himalayas
(4) Amazon forests
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Amazon rainforest has the greatest biodiversity on Earth.
Q35. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) In man, insulin is synthesized as a proinsulin.
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. coli.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by disulfide bridges, not hydrogen bonds.
Q36. The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features:
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
Answer: (1)
Explanation: These features are characteristic of a monocotyledonous stem.
Q37. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits
(b) Heterocercal caudal fin
(c) Air Bladder
(d) Poison sting
Column-II:
(i) Trygon
(ii) Cyclostomes
(iii) Chondrichthyes
(iv) Osteichthyes
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Cyclostomes have 6-15 pairs of gill slits.
Chondrichthyes have a heterocercal caudal fin.
Osteichthyes have an air bladder.
Trygon has a poison sting.
Q38. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
(1) CH₄, H₂, NH₃, and water vapor at 800°C
(2) CH₃, H₂, NH₄, and water vapor at 800°C
(3) CH₄, H₂, NH₃, and water vapor at 600°C
(4) CH₃, H₂, NH₃, and water vapor at 600°C
Answer: (1)
Explanation: S.L. Miller used CH₄, H₂, NH₃, and water vapor at 800°C.
Q39. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
(1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Alfred Wallace
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Oparin
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Karl Ernst von Baer disapproved of embryological support for evolution.
Q40. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
(1) Transpiration
(2) Root pressure
(3) Imbibition
(4) Plasmolysis
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Root pressure is responsible for the loss of water in liquid form.
Q40. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine, and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
(1) Nutritive value
(2) Growth response
(3) Defence action
(4) Effect on reproduction
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Secondary metabolites are produced by plants for defense against grazers and browsers.
Q41. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
(1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
Answer: (2)
Explanation: RuBisCo catalyzes the formation of one molecule of 3-C compound (phosphoglycerate) and one molecule of 2-C compound (phosphoglycolate).
Q42. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:
(1) Insect pests
(2) Fungal diseases
(3) Plant nematodes
(4) Insect predators
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Bt cotton is resistant to insect pests like the cotton bollworm.
Q43. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Herbicide-resistant weeds, drug-resistant eukaryotes, and man-created breeds of domesticated animals are examples of evolution due to anthropogenic action.
Q44. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity:
(1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead), antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(3) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Active immunity is slow and takes time to give a full response.
Q45. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
(1) Out crossing
(2) Mutational breeding
(3) Cross breeding
(4) Inbreeding
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by cross-breeding Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
Q46. Identify the correct statement with reference to the human digestive system:
(1) Ileum opens into the small intestine
(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
(3) Ileum is a highly coiled part
(4) Vermiform appendix arises from the duodenum
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The ileum is a highly coiled part of the small intestine.
Q47. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Clostridium butylicum
(b) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Monascus purpureus
(d) Aspergillus niger
Column-II:
(i) Cyclosporin-A
(ii) Butyric Acid
(iii) Citric Acid
(iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Clostridium butylicum produces butyric acid.
Trichoderma polysporum produces cyclosporin-A.
Monascus purpureus produces a blood cholesterol-lowering agent.
Aspergillus niger produces citric acid.
Q48. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Uremia and Ketonuria
(2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Ketonuria and glycosuria are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus.
Q49. Floridean starch has a structure similar to:
(1) Starch and cellulose
(2) Amylopectin and glycogen
(3) Mannitol and algin
(4) Laminarin and cellulose
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Floridean starch is similar to amylopectin and glycogen.
Q50. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases:
(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, and Genital herpes are sexually transmitted diseases.
Q51. Match the following with respect to meiosis:
(a) Zygotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Diplotene
(d) Diakinesis
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Zygotene: Synapsis
Pachytene: Crossing over
Diplotene: Chiasmata formation
Diakinesis: Terminalization
Q52. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Anabaena and Volvox
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae.
Q53. Which of the following hormone levels will cause the release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle?
(1) High concentration of Estrogen
(2) High concentration of Progesterone
(3) Low concentration of LH
(4) Low concentration of FSH
Answer: (1)
Explanation: High levels of estrogen trigger the release of LH, which leads to ovulation.
Q54. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(c) RNAi
(d) PCR
Column-II:
(i) Gene therapy
(ii) Cellular defense
(iii) Detection of HIV infection
(iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Bt cotton involves Bacillus thuringiensis.
Adenosine deaminase deficiency is treated with gene therapy.
RNAi is a method of cellular defense.
PCR is used to detect HIV infection.
Q55. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
(1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
(2) Emission of ozone-depleting substances
(3) Release of Green House gases
(4) Disposal of e-wastes
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol was signed to control the emission of ozone-depleting substances.
Q56. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
(1) They have RNA with a protein coat
(2) They have free RNA without a protein coat
(3) They have DNA with a protein coat
(4) They have free DNA without a protein coat
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Viroids have free RNA without a protein coat.
Q57. The ovary is half inferior in:
(1) Brinjal
(2) Mustard
(3) Sunflower
(4) Plum
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The ovary is half inferior in Plum.
Q58. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of:
(1) Protein into polypeptides
(2) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(3) Caseinogen into casein
(4) Pepsinogen into pepsin
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin.
Q59. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in a grassland ecosystem:
(a) Fourth trophic level
(b) Second trophic level
(c) First trophic level
(d) Third trophic level
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
First trophic level: Grass
Second trophic level: Rabbit
Third trophic level: Crow
Fourth trophic level: Vulture
Q60. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 14
(4) 8
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Mendel selected 14 true-breeding plant varieties.
Q61. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Organ of Corti
(b) Cochlea
(c) Eustachian tube
(d) Stapes
Column-II:
(i) Connects middle ear and pharynx
(ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth
(iii) Attached to the oval window
(iv) Located on the basilar membrane
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Organ of Corti is located on the basilar membrane.
Cochlea is the coiled part of the labyrinth.
Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx.
Stapes is attached to the oval window.
Q62. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
(1) Insects or wind
(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water
Answer: (1)
Explanation: In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by insects or wind.
Q63. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop:
(1) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Gibberellins increase the length of the stem in sugarcane.
Q64. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
(1) PS-II to Cytb₆f complex
(2) Cytb₆f complex to PS-I
(3) PS-I to NADP⁺
(4) PS-I to ATP synthase
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Plastoquinone transfers electrons from PS-II to the Cytb₆f complex.
Q65. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
(1) Gibberellic acid
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Phenolic acid
(4) Para-ascorbic acid
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Gibberellic acid breaks seed dormancy.
Q66. Name the enzyme that facilitates the opening of the DNA helix during transcription:
(1) DNA ligase
(2) DNA helicase
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) RNA polymerase
Answer: (4)
Explanation: RNA polymerase facilitates the opening of the DNA helix during transcription.
Q67. Which of the following would help in the prevention of diuresis?
(1) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
(2) Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of Na⁺ and water, preventing diuresis.
Q68. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and the same
(4) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
Q69. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Placenta
(b) Zona pellucida
(c) Bulbo-urethral glands
(d) Leydig cells
Column-II:
(i) Androgens
(ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
(iii) Layer of the ovum
(iv) Lubrication of the Penis
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Placenta secretes hCG.
Zona pellucida is a layer of the ovum.
Bulbo-urethral glands help in lubrication.
Leydig cells synthesize androgens.
Q70. Strobili or cones are found in:
(1) Salvinia
(2) Pteris
(3) Marchantia
(4) Equisetum
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum.
Q71. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is called the quiescent stage (G₀). This process occurs at the end of:
(1) M phase
(2) G₁ phase
(3) S phase
(4) G₂ phase
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Cells enter the G₀ phase at the end of the M phase.
Q72. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Industrial melanism
(4) Natural selection
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of convergent evolution.
Q73. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10⁹ bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:
(1) 2.0 meters
(2) 2.5 meters
(3) 2.2 meters
(4) 2.7 meters
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The length of DNA is calculated as 0.34 nm × 6.6 × 10⁹ bp = 2.2 meters.
Q74. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:
(1) Repolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of auricles
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The QRS complex represents the depolarization of ventricles.
Q75. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Eosinophils
(b) Basophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes
Column-II:
(i) Immune response
(ii) Phagocytosis
(iii) Release histaminate, destructive enzymes
(iv) Release granules containing histamine
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Eosinophils release histaminate and destructive enzymes.
Basophils release granules containing histamine.
Neutrophils are phagocytic cells.
Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses.
Q76. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
(4) Adenine does not pair with thymine
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds.
Q77. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:
(1) Selectable marker
(2) Ori site
(3) Palindromic sequence
(4) Recognition site
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Ori site controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector.
Q78. Identify the basic amino acid from the following:
(1) Tyrosine
(2) Glutamic Acid
(3) Lysine
(4) Valine
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid.
Q79. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Pancreas
Column-II:
(i) Grave’s disease
(ii) Diabetes mellitus
(iii) Diabetes insipidus
(iv) Addison’s disease
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Pituitary gland: Diabetes insipidus
Thyroid gland: Grave’s disease
Adrenal gland: Addison’s disease
Pancreas: Diabetes mellitus
Q80. Select the correct statement:
(1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
Q81. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Collagen
(3) Lectin
(4) Insulin
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Collagen is the most abundant protein in animals.
Q82. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
(1) Mendel
(2) Sutton
(3) Boveri
(4) Morgan
Answer: (4)
Explanation: T.H. Morgan experimentally verified the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
Q83. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column-I:
(a) Floating Ribs
(b) Acromion
(c) Scapula
(d) Glenoid cavity
Column-II:
(i) Located between second and seventh ribs
(ii) Head of the Humerus
(iii) Clavicle
(iv) Do not connect with the sternum
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Floating ribs do not connect with the sternum.
Acromion is a flat expanded process of the spine of the scapula.
Scapula is located between the second and seventh ribs.
Glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the humerus.
Q84. The number of substrate-level phosphorylations in one turn of the citric acid cycle is:
(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
Answer: (2)
Explanation: One substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in one turn of the citric acid cycle.
Q85. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The synaptonemal complex dissolves during the diplotene stage of prophase I.
Q86. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
(1) Ctenophora
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate.
Q87. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
(1) Hilum
(2) Micropyle
(3) Nucellus
(4) Chalaza
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The hilum is the point where the funicle is attached to the ovule.
Q88. Goblet cells of the alimentary canal are modified from:
(1) Squamous epithelial cells
(2) Columnar epithelial cells
(3) Chondrocytes
(4) Compound epithelial cells
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Goblet cells are modified columnar epithelial cells.
Q89. Snow-blindness in the Antarctic region is due to:
(1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
(2) Inflammation of the cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(4) Damage to the retina caused by infra-red rays
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Snow-blindness is caused by inflammation of the cornea due to UV-B radiation.
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